I Septuagint Daniel was translated in the 3rd century BCE, mustn't the predictions of the Hasmonean revolt of 165 have been actual predictive prophecies?

If the expression "fishers of men" as used in Habakkuk and Jeremiah denotes oppressors of Israel, doesn't the use of it to mean preachers of the gospel imply an unhistorical character for the relevant synoptic passages?

Why do the synoptic stories of Jesus' relatives visiting him seem to denigrate Mary?

Given John 3:16 , the Great Commission, etc., why should Peter have been clueless when the Holy Spirit told him to evangelize the Gentile Cornelius?