Today, I will talk about an interesting case in which a person sold a property that it did not own. I know that it is hard to believe this that how can a person sell a property that it does not own but imagine a situation where a person executes a power of attorney in favour of another person to rent out a property or mortgage it, but instead the power of attorney holder sells that property without the permission of the actual owner. Is such a sale of property valid?

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